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List six roles of EMD. | Telephone Interrogator Dispatch Life Support Instruction Provider Resource Allocator Logistics Coordinator Field Communicator Life Impactor |
List four call processing objectives | Safety System Response Patient Care Information for Responders |
List five benefits of structured call taking and protocol use. | Established Standard of Service Prioritized Responses Quality Improvement Procedures Certification and Accreditation Reduced Exposure to Liability |
All actual response assignments and emergency modes are: | Predetermined by local Medical Control and EMA Administration |
Medical professionals and communications experts from around the world contribute to the ongoing development of the MPDS. | True |
Which of the following best describes the difference between certification and accreditation? | Individuals are certified and agencies are accredited. |
When chief complaint description is seizure go to protocol 12 regardless of consciousness and breathing status. True or false? | True |
When automatic callback number information is incorrect or unavailable, the Academy recommends that EMDs verify the address and callback number by asking the caller to repeat the information. True or false? | True |
What are the Four Commandments of EMD? | Chief complaint Age Status of consciousness Status of breathing |
What are the four priority symptoms? | Level of consciousness Breathing Chest pain Serious hemorrhage |
Ground level falls caused by fainting, or dizziness should be handled on Protocol 31? True or false? | True |
Sudden non- traumatic vision problems should be handled on Protocol 28 for Stroke. True or false? | True |
Severe thermal burns to the eye almost always affect the face or head and should be handled on Protocol 7 for burns. True or false? | True |
If the complaint description involves hazardous materials that pose a threat to bystanders or responders, go to Protocol 8 for Hazmat. True or false? | True |
Recreational inhalations of potentially harmful substances should be handled on Protocol 23 for overdose/Poisoning. True or false? | True |
When the complaint description is breathing-related tracheostomy problems in the conscious patient, go to Protocol 31 for unconscious. True or false? | False Go to Protocol 6 for Breathing Problems |
Because a patient has a problem in a hot or cold environment means the problem was caused by the environment. True or false? | False Heat or cold extremes may trigger other medical problems. |
A complaint of Postpartum hemorrhage should be handled on what Protocol? | Hemorrhage/ Lacerations |
When is it necessary to handle a pregnant patients issue who have illness as the primary complaint on a Protocol other than 26 for Sick Persons? | When the problem concerns vaginal bleeding, labor, miscarriage or waters broken. |
If the actual type of suicide attempt is determined to be overdose, carbon monoxide, stab, or gunshot wound go to and dispatch from that more specific protocol. True or false? | True |
Should the complaint of sickle cell or thalassemia be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person? Yes or no? | Yes |
The complaint of autonomic dysreflexia/hyperreflexia should not be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person? True or false? | False It should be handled on Protocol 26 for sick person. |
The MPDS symbol with the arrow directs the EMD to: A Go to PDIs, then DLS links B send and go to PDIs C send, PDIs and return to questioning D send and return to questioning | C send, PDIs and return to questioning |
A question with a pre- question qualifier should always be asked? | No only when the caller reports that the patient fits the criteria. |
Key questions must be asked in order and as written? True or false? | True |
What are the four priority symptoms in EMD?
“Any true or actual medical emergency, as it worsens, will result in one or more of 4 basic priority symptoms: chest pain; difficulty breathing; change in level of consciousness; serious hemorrhage … in all cases, no exceptions.” The EMD's job is to interrogate about the presence or absence of priority symptoms.
What is the best definition for repetitive persistence?
The four features of repetitive persistence:
Repeat more than once, if necessary, a request for a desired action. Supply a justification for the desired action that the caller will connect with. Each time the request and justification are given they must be said using the exact same words.
Which of the following is the best definition for Wake Effect collision?
A traffic accident caused by the passage of an emergency vehicle that does not directly involve the emergency vehicle. The Best definition for "wake -effect collision."
When not obvious EFDS must ask if a fire has been extinguished?
What are the 3 Fire Incident Priorities? Should you ask a caller if they extinguished a fire? No. Information about extinguished fire should be spontaneously provided by the caller.