Applications to an insurer must include all of the following information EXCEPT Quizlet

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Terms in this set (120)

#101.
Which of the following is called a "second-to-die" policy?
a)
Survivorship life
b)
Family income
c)
Juvenile life
d)
Joint life

Survivorship life (also referred to as "second-to-die" or "last survivor" policy) is much the same as joint life in that it insures two or more lives for a premium that is based on a joint age.

a)
Survivorship life

#102.
Annually renewable term policies provide a level death benefit for a premium that
a)
Remains level.
b)
Fluctuates.
c)
Increases annually.
d)
Decreases annually.

Annually renewable term policies provide a level death benefit for a premium that increases each year with the age of the insured.

c)
Increases annually.

#104.
How many employees can a business have and still meet the definition of "small employer"?
a)
30
b)
40
c)
50
d)
20

Small employer means an employer who employed an average of at least two but not more than 50 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least two employees on the first day of the plan year.

c)
50

#105.
An insured owns a $50,000 whole life policy. At age 47, the insured decides to cancel his policy and exercise the extended term option for the policy's cash value, which is currently $20,000. What would be the face amount of the new term policy?
a)
$20,000
b)
$25,000
c)
$50,000
d)
The face amount will be determined by the insurer.

The face of the term policy would be the same as the face amount provided under the whole life policy.

c)
$50,000

#106.
In respect to the consideration clause, which of the following is consideration on the part of the insurer?
a)
Offering an unconditional contract
b)
Explaining policy revisions to the applicant
c)
Promising to pay in accordance with the contract terms
d)
Offering a secondary policy to the applicant

The consideration clause requires the insurer to promise to pay in accordance to the terms stated in the contract.

c)
Promising to pay in accordance with the contract terms

#107.
Level term insurance provides a level death benefit and a level premium during the policy term. If the policy renews at the end of a specified period of time, the policy premium will be
a)
Based on the issue age of the insured.
b)
Discounted.
c)
Adjusted to the insured's age at the time of renewal.
d)
Determined by the health of the insured.

If a level term product is renewed at the end of the term period the premium will be based upon the attained age of the insured.

c)
Adjusted to the insured's age at the time of renewal.

#108.
Which state has jurisdiction over a group policy that covers individuals that reside in more than one state?
a)
The state in which the policy was delivered
b)
The state of employer's choice
c)
All states in which covered individuals reside
d)
The state in which the majority of individuals live

Group insurance can often provide coverage for employees in more than one state. The state in which the coverage was delivered would have jurisdiction.

a)
The state in which the policy was delivered

#150.
In which of the following cases would an "any occupation" disability income policy pay the benefits?
a)
The insured's family has unexpected expenses due to the insured's disability.
b)
The insured is unable to perform any jobs in the field related to the insured's education and experience.
c)
The insured is unable to perform the duties of his or her specific occupation.
d)
The insured changes jobs and is injured as a result of a more hazardous occupation.

A policy that has an "any occupation" provision will only provide benefits when the insured is unable to perform any of the duties of the occupation for which they are suited by reason of education, training, or experience.

b)
The insured is unable to perform any jobs in the field related to the insured's education and experience.

#149.
Which of the following types of agent authority is also called "perceived authority"?
a)
Express
b)
Implied
c)
Fiduciary
d)
Apparent

Apparent authority (also known as perceived authority) is the appearance or the assumption of authority based on the actions, words, or deeds of the principal or because of circumstances the principal created.

d)
Apparent

#146.
Which statement is NOT true regarding a Straight Life policy?
a)
It has the lowest annual premium of the three types of Whole Life policies.
b)
Its premium steadily decreases over time, in response to its growing cash value.
c)
The face value of the policy is paid to the insured at age 100.
d)
It usually develops cash value by the end of the third policy year.

Straight Life policies charge a level annual premium throughout the insured's lifetime and provide a level, guaranteed death benefit.

b)
Its premium steadily decreases over time, in response to its growing cash value.

#145.
A married couple's retirement annuity pays them $250 per month. The husband dies and his wife continues to receive $125.50 per month for as long as she lives. When the wife dies, payments stop. What settlement option did they select?
a)
Joint annuity
b)
Cash refund annuity
c)
Straight life
d)
Joint and survivor

Under a joint settlement option, payments would stop at the first death, but under the joint and survivor, payment would continue until both recipients die. Usually, the surviving beneficiary receives 1/2 or 2/3 of the amount received when both beneficiaries were alive.

d)
Joint and survivor

#144.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
Medicare will cover nursing home care if it is part of the treatment for a covered illness.
b)
Care needed because of aging is covered by Medicare but not by Medicare supplements.
c)
Care needed because of aging is covered by Medicare.
d)
Medicare does not pay for nursing home care in any case.

Medicare will cover nursing home care if it is part of the treatment for a covered injury or illness, but care needed because of aging is not covered by Medicare or Medicare supplements. Medicare and Medicare supplements pay for skilled nursing care, but the coverage is limited. Medicaid does pay for nursing home care, but it provides coverage only for those that qualify with low income and low assets.

a)
Medicare will cover nursing home care if it is part of the treatment for a covered illness.

#143.
What limits the amount that a policyowner may borrow from a whole life insurance policy?
a)
Cash value
b)
Premiums paid
c)
Amount stated in the policy
d)
Face amount

The amount available to the policyowner for a loan is the policy's cash value. If there are any outstanding loans, that amount will be reduced by the amount of the unpaid loans and interest.

a)
Cash value

#140.
In a replacement situation, all of the following must be considered EXCEPT
a)
Limitations.
b)
Exclusions.
c)
Assets.
d)
Benefits.

In a replacement situation the agent must be careful to compare the benefits, limitations and exclusions found in the current and the proposed replacement policy.

c)
Assets.

#138.
If an insurer meets the state's financial requirements and is approved to transact business in the state, it is considered to be
a)
Qualified.
b)
Approved.
c)
Authorized.
d)
Certified.

Insurers who meet the state's financial requirements and are approved to transact business in the state are considered authorized or admitted into the state as a legal insurer.

c)
Authorized.

#137.
What is the difference between the Medicare approved amount for a service or supply and the actual charge?
a)
Coinsurance
b)
Excess charge
c)
Actual charge
d)
Limiting charge

Excess Charge is the difference between the Medicare approved amount for a service or supply and the actual charge.

b)
Excess charge

#136.
All of the following are examples of risk retention EXCEPT
a)
Copayments.
b)
Self-insurance.
c)
Premiums.
d)
Deductibles.

Retention is a planned assumption of risk, or acceptance of responsibility for the loss by an insured through the use of deductibles, copayments, or self-insurance.

c)
Premiums.

#134.
All of the following are personal uses of life insurance EXCEPT
a)
Cash accumulation.
b)
Buy-sell agreement.
c)
Survivor protection.
d)
Estate creation.

Personal uses of life insurance include survivor protection, estate creation and conservation, cash accumulation, and liquidity. A buy-sell agreement is for business uses of life insurance.

b)
Buy-sell agreement.

#133.
The provision which prevents the insured from bringing any legal action against the company for at least 60 days after proof of loss is known as
a)
Time limit on certain defenses.
b)
Payment of claims.
c)
Proof of loss.
d)
Legal actions.

This mandatory provision requires that no legal action to collect benefits may be started sooner than 60 days after the proof of loss is filed with the insurer. This gives the insurer time to evaluate the claim.

d)
Legal actions.

#132.
Regarding the return of premium option for LTC policies, what happens to the premium if the policy lapses?
a)
The insurer will return a percentage of the premiums paid.
b)
The insurer will not return any premiums in the case the policy is allowed to lapse.
c)
The premium will only be returned if the insured dies.
d)
The insurer will return all of the premiums paid.

The return of premium optional nonforfeiture type benefit is offered by most insurers writing long term care policies. In the event the insured dies or the policy is lapsed, the insurer will return a certain percentage of the premiums paid.

a)
The insurer will return a percentage of the premiums paid.

#131.
For the reported losses of an insured group to become more likely to equal the statistical probability of loss for that particular class, the insured group must become
a)
Smaller.
b)
Older.
c)
More active.
d)
Larger.

According to the law of large numbers, the larger a group becomes, the easier it is to predict losses. Insurers use this law in order to predict certain types of losses and set appropriate premiums.

d)
Larger.

#130.
A producer may accept a commission for a Medicare supplement policy
a)
For Medicare supplement policies B - N.
b)
For Medicare supplement policies K and L only.
c)
At any time: there are no restrictions on commissions.
d)
If the commission for the first year does not exceed double the commission for the second year.

A producer may only accept a commission for a Medicare supplement policy only if the first year commission doesn't exceed 200% of the commission for the second year. Commissions taken from renewals of the supplemental policy must be the same as the second year, and received for at least 5 years.

d)
If the commission for the first year does not exceed double the commission for the second year.

#129.
What is the term for how frequently a policyowner is required to pay the policy premium?
a)
Mode
b)
Schedule
c)
Grace period
d)
Consideration

The premium mode is the manner or frequency that the policyowner pays the policy premium.

a)
Mode

#128.
An insurance company wants to obtain the insurance history of an applicant. Which source releases coded information to insurers regarding information included on previous insurance applications?
a)
Medical Information Bureau
b)
Insurer's Protection Guild
c)
Integrated Insurer's Support
d)
Federal Bureau of Investigation

The Medical Information Bureau receives information that an applicant provides in insurance applications and issues it in a coded format to insurers who request these reports. MIB information alone cannot be used to justify declining a risk, but it is helpful in providing insurers with information.

a)
Medical Information Bureau

#127.
During partial withdrawal from a universal life policy, which portion will be taxed?
a)
Cash value
b)
Principal
c)
Loan
d)
Interest

During the withdrawal, the interest earned on the withdrawn cash value may be subject to taxation.

d)
Interest

#126.
Under the uniform required provisions, proof of loss under a health insurance policy normally should be filed within
a)
90 days of a loss.
b)
20 days of a loss.
c)
30 days of a loss.
d)
60 days of a loss.

Under the Uniform Required Provisions, proof of loss under a health insurance policy normally should be filed within 90 days of a loss.

a)
90 days of a loss.

#125.
Which of the following is a rating method that uses the same rate structure for all insureds, regardless of their past or potential experience?
a)
Standard rated
b)
Equal rated
c)
Uniform rated
d)
Community rated

"Community rated" is a rating method that uses the same rate structure for all insureds, regardless of their past or potential experience.

d)
Community rated

#124.
All of the following are TRUE of the federal tax advantages of a qualified plan EXCEPT
a)
Employer contributions are tax deductible as ordinary business expense.
b)
Funds accumulate on a tax-deferred basis.
c)
Employee and employer contributions are not counted as income to the employee for income tax purposes.
d)
At distribution, all amounts received by the employee are tax free.

Funds in a qualified plan accumulate on a tax-deferred basis; however, at distribution any amount received by the employee will be treated as ordinary income for tax purposes.

b)
At distribution, all amounts received by the employee are tax free.

#123.
Which of the following groups would probably be covered by blanket insurance?
a)
A university's sports team
b)
A large family
c)
A publishing company
d)
People who obtain temporary insurance

A blanket policy covers members of a particular group when they are participating in a particular activity. Such groups include students, campers, passengers on a common carrier, or sports teams. Often the covered individual's name is not known because individuals come and go. Unlike group health insurance the individuals are automatically covered, and they do not receive a certificate of insurance.

a)
A university's sports team

#122.
What is the main purpose of the Seven-pay Test?
a)
It requires level premium payments for 7 years.
b)
It ensures that the policy benefits are paid out in 7 years.
c)
It guarantees the minimum interest.
d)
It determines if the insurance policy is a MEC.

The Seven-pay Test determines whether an insurance policy is "over-funded" or if it's a Modified Endowment Contract. In other words, the cumulative premiums paid during the first seven years of a policy must not exceed the total amount of net level premiums that would be required to pay the policy up using guaranteed mortality costs and interest.

d)
It determines if the insurance policy is a MEC.

#121.
All of the following are characteristics of a group life insurance plan EXCEPT
a)
The cost of the plan is determined by the average age of the group.
b)
There is a requirement to prove insurability on the part of the participants.
c)
The participants receive a Certificate of Insurance as their proof of insurance.
d)
A minimum number of participants is required in order to underwrite the plan.

There is no individual underwriting for group life insurance.

b)
There is a requirement to prove insurability on the part of the participants.

#120.
When an insured purchased her disability income policy, she misstated her age to the agent. She told the agent that she was 30 years old, when in fact, she was 37. If the policy contains the optional misstatement of age provision
a)
The elimination period will be extended 6 months for each year of age misstatement.
b)
Because the misstatement occurred more than 2 years ago, it has no effect.
c)
Amounts payable under the policy will reflect the insured's correct age.
d)
The contract will be deemed void because of the misstatement of age.

If an insured misstates his or her age upon policy application, the optional misstatement of age provision will change the payable benefit to that which would have been purchased at the insured's actual age.

c)
Amounts payable under the policy will reflect the insured's correct age.

#118.
Under the mandatory uniform provision Notice of Claim, the first notice of injury or sickness covered under an accident and health policy must contain
a)
A statement that is sufficiently clear to identify the insured and the nature of the claim.
b)
A statement from the insured's employer showing that the insured was unable to work.
c)
An estimate of the total amount of medical and hospital expense for the loss.
d)
A complete physician's statement.

The Insurance Code requires that each policy must include, "Written notice of claim must be given to the insurer within 20 days after the occurrence or commencement of any loss covered by the policy, or as soon thereafter as is reasonably possible".

a)
A statement that is sufficiently clear to identify the insured and the nature of the claim.

#117.
In an optionally renewable policy, the insurer has which of the following options?
a)
Increase the grace period
b)
Alter the due date so the policy can be cancelled sooner
c)
Shorten the notice that the insured receives
d)
Increase premiums

Optionally renewable policies allow the insurer to cancel a policy for any reason whatsoever. Policies can only be cancelled by class on the policy anniversary or premium due date (renewal date). If the insurer elects to renew coverage, it can also increase the policy premium.

d)
Increase premiums

#116.
Which of the following is true regarding health insurance?
a)
It could provide payments for loss of income.
b)
Disability coverage is excluded.
c)
It provides death benefit coverage.
d)
It only covers expenses related to health care.

Health insurance is a generic term, encompassing several types of insurance contracts, which, though related, are designed to protect against different risks. It provides coverage for expenses related to health care, loss of income, and disability income.

a)
It could provide payments for loss of income.

#115.
Which of the following is true regarding taxation of dividends in participating policies?
a)
Dividends are not taxable.
b)
Dividends are taxable only after a certain amount is accumulated annually.
c)
Dividends are taxable in some life insurance policies and nontaxable in others.
d)
Dividends are considered income for tax purposes.

Dividends are not considered to be income for tax purposes, since they are the return of unused premiums. The interest earned on the dividends, however, is subject to taxation as ordinary income.

a)
Dividends are not taxable.

#114.
Susan owns an individual long-term care insurance plan and is able to deduct the premiums from her taxes. What income taxation will be imposed on the benefits she receives?
a)
None
b)
Federal income tax
c)
State income tax
d)
Federal and state income tax

Whether or not an insured can deduct individual long-term care insurance premiums from his/her taxes, the benefits are received income tax-free.

a)
None

#113.
In terms of parties to a contract, which of the following does NOT describe a competent party?
a)
The person must have at least completed secondary education.
b)
The person must not be under the influence of drugs or alcohol.
c)
The person must be of legal age.
d)
The person must be mentally competent to understand the contract.

The parties to a contract must be capable of entering into a contract in the eyes of the law. Generally, this requires that both parties be of legal age, mentally competent to understand the contract, and not under the influence of drugs or alcohol.

a)
The person must have at least completed secondary education.

#112.
Which of the following entities has the authority to make changes to an insurance policy?
a)
Producer
b)
Insurer's executive officer
c)
Department of Insurance
d)
Broker

Only an executive officer of the company, not an agent, has authority to make any changes to the policy. The insurer must have the insured's written agreement to the change.

b)
Insurer's executive officer

#109.
Which of the following is NOT an enrollment period for Medicare Part A applicants?
a)
Special enrollment
b)
General enrollment
c)
Automatic enrollment
d)
Initial enrollment

There are 3 types of enrollment periods for Medicare Part A: initial enrollment period, general enrollment period and special enrollment period.

c)
Automatic enrollment

#108.
Which state has jurisdiction over a group policy that covers individuals that reside in more than one state?
a)
The state in which the policy was delivered
b)
The state of employer's choice
c)
All states in which covered individuals reside
d)
The state in which the majority of individuals live

Group insurance can often provide coverage for employees in more than one state. The state in which the coverage was delivered would have jurisdiction.

a)
The state in which the policy was delivered

#107.
Level term insurance provides a level death benefit and a level premium during the policy term. If the policy renews at the end of a specified period of time, the policy premium will be
a)
Based on the issue age of the insured.
b)
Discounted.
c)
Adjusted to the insured's age at the time of renewal.
d)
Determined by the health of the insured.

If a level term product is renewed at the end of the term period, the premium will be based upon the attained age of the insured.

c)
Adjusted to the insured's age at the time of renewal.

#106.
In respect to the consideration clause, which of the following is consideration on the part of the insurer?
a)
Offering an unconditional contract
b)
Explaining policy revisions to the applicant
c)
Promising to pay in accordance with the contract terms
d)
Offering a secondary policy to the applicant

The consideration clause requires the insurer to promise to pay in accordance to the terms stated in the contract.

c)
Promising to pay in accordance with the contract terms

#105.
An insured owns a $50,000 whole life policy. At age 47, the insured decides to cancel his policy and exercise the extended term option for the policy's cash value, which is currently $20,000. What would be the face amount of the new term policy?
a)
$20,000
b)
$25,000
c)
$50,000
d)
The face amount will be determined by the insurer.

The face of the term policy would be the same as the face amount provided under the whole life policy.

c)
$50,000

#100.
If a retirement plan or annuity is "qualified," this means
a)
It is approved by the IRS.
b)
It has a penalty for early withdrawal.
c)
It accepts after-tax contributions.
d)
It is noncancellable.

A qualified retirement plan is approved by the IRS, which then gives both the employer and employee benefits such as deductible contributions and tax-deferred growth.

a)
It is approved by the IRS.

#99.
A father owns a life insurance policy on his 15-year-old daughter. The policy contains the optional Payor Benefit rider. If the father becomes disabled, what will happen to the life insurance premiums?
a)
The insured will have to pay premiums for 6 months. If at the end of this period the father is still disabled, the insured will be refunded the premiums.
b)
The insured's premiums will be waived until she is 21.
c)
The premiums will become tax deductible until the insured's 18th birthday.
d)
Since it is the policyowner, and not the insured, who has become disabled, the life insurance policy will not be affected.

If the payor (usually a parent or guardian) becomes disabled for at least 6 months or dies, the insurer will waive the premiums until the minor reaches a certain age, such as 21.

b)
The insured's premiums will be waived until she is 21.

#98.
To legally transact insurance in this state, an insurer must obtain which of the following?
a)
Business entity license
b)
Certificate of Insurance
c)
Certificate of Authority
d)
Power of Attorney

A Certificate of Authority is required in order to transact insurance.

c)
Certificate of Authority

#97.
In individual and group accident and sickness insurance coverage, the insurer must cover a newborn from the moment of birth, and if additional premium payment is required, how many days should be allowed for payment?
a)
Within 10 calendar days
b)
Within 15 working days
c)
Within 31 days of birth
d)
Within a reasonable period of time

The insured must notify the insurer of a newly born dependent, and if additional payment is required, pay within 31 days.

c)
Within 31 days of birth

#95.
Which of the following reports will provide the underwriter with the information about an insurance applicant's credit?
a)
Any federal report
b)
Consumer report
c)
Inspection report
d)
Agent's report

Consumer reports include written and/or oral information regarding a consumer's credit, character, reputation, or habits collected by a reporting agency from employment records, credit reports, and other public sources.

b)
Consumer report

#94.
Which of the following are responsible for making premium payments in an HMO plan?
a)
Producers
b)
Insureds
c)
Payors
d)
Subscribers

Subscribers are people in whose name the contract is issued. They would be responsible for making premium payments.

d)
Subscribers

#90.
Who must sign the notice regarding replacement?
a)
Applicant only
b)
Agent only
c)
Both the applicant and agent
d)
Both the agent and the insurer

Before issuing a replacement policy, the insurer must furnish the applicant with a notice regarding replacement, which must be signed by both the applicant and the agent.

c)
Both the applicant and agent

#89.
If an agent wishes to sell variable life policies, what license must the agent obtain?
a)
Adjuster
b)
Surplus Lines
c)
Personal Lines
d)
Securities

Variable products are governed in part by the Securities and Exchange Commission; therefore, agents selling variable life policies must also secure a securities license.

d)
Securities

#88.
Which of the following applicants could the insurer charge a higher rate of premium and not violate regulations regarding unfair discrimination?
a)
An applicant who has been a victim of domestic abuse
b)
An applicant who is a smoker
c)
An applicant who was born in another country
d)
An applicant who is legally blind

Smoking or not smoking is a rating factor.

b)
An applicant who is a smoker

#87.
Which of the following provisions would prevent an insurance company from paying a reimbursement claim to someone other than the policyowner?
a)
Payment of Claims
b)
Change of beneficiary
c)
Entire Contract Clause
d)
Proof of Loss

The Payment of Claims provision states that the claims must be paid to the policyowner, unless the death proceeds need to be paid to a beneficiary.

a)
Payment of Claims

#86.
Which of the following statements regarding conditional receipts is true?
a)
They purchase temporary insurance, up to 6 months.
b)
They become part of the policy.
c)
They are temporary insuring agreements.
d)
They guarantee the insurer will approve the application.

With a conditional receipt, insurance coverage is effective as of the date of the receipt, so long as the application is approved.

They become part of the policy.
c)

#85.
According to a state regulation, a notice of information practices that insurers provide to applicants and policyowners must include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
A description of the rights of the party being investigated.
b)
The information gathered in the course of the investigation.
c)
That the information may be disclosed to other parties.
d)
The type and source of investigative techniques used.

A notice of information practices must include the type of information that may be collected, the type and source of investigative techniques that may be used, that information may be disclosed to other parties, and a description of the rights of the party being investigated. Insurers are not required to disclose any of the actual information to the applicant.

b)
The information gathered in the course of the investigation.

#84.
An insured pays a $100 premium every month for his insurance coverage, yet the insurer promises to pay $10,000 for a covered loss. What characteristic of an insurance contract does this describe?
a)
Good health
b)
Adhesion
c)
Conditional
d)
Aleatory

In an aleatory contract, unequal amounts are exchanged between payments and benefits. In this instance, the insured receives a large benefit for a small price.

d)
Aleatory

#83.
Which of the following is a risk classification used by underwriters for life insurance?
a)
Excellent
b)
Standard
c)
Poor
d)
Normal

The three ratings classifications that denote the risk level of insureds are standard, substandard, and preferred. This classification system helps insurers to decide if an insured should pay a higher premium.

b)
Standard

#82.
The coverage provided by a disability income policy that does not pay benefits for losses occurring as the result of the insured's employment is called
a)
Occupational coverage.
b)
Workers compensation.
c)
Nonoccupational coverage.
d)
Unemployment coverage.

Most group disability income is nonoccupational coverage, covering insureds only off the job. The employer carries workers compensation for on the job injuries or sickness.

c)
Nonoccupational coverage.

#81.
An insured and his wife are both involved in a head-on collision. The husband dies instantly, and the wife dies 15 days later. The company pays the death benefit to the estate of the insured. This indicates that the life insurance policy had what provision?
a)
Common Disaster
b)
Accidental Death
c)
Survivor Life
d)
Second-to-Die

Under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Law, Common Disaster provision, the law will assume that the primary beneficiary dies first in a common disaster as long as the beneficiary dies within this specified period of time following the death of the insured (usually 30 days). This provides that the proceeds will be paid to either the contingent beneficiary or the insured's estate, if no contingent beneficiary is designated.

a)
Common Disaster

#80.
What is the minimum number of employees that a small employer can have?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5

A small employer employs an average of at least 2 but not more than 50 employees on business days during the preceding calendar year and who employs at least two employees on the first day of the plan year.

a)
2

#79.
The death protection component of Universal Life Insurance is always
a)
Adjustable Life
b)
Increasing Term
c)
Annually Renewable Term
d)
Whole Life

A universal policy has two components: an insurance component and a cash account. The insurance component (or the death protection) of a universal life policy is always annual renewable term insurance.

c)
Annually Renewable Term

#78.
Benefit periods for individual short-term disability policies will usually continue from
a)
3 months to 3 years.
b)
6 months to 2 years.
c)
2 years to age 65.
d)
1 week to 4 weeks.

Short-term disability is defined as a disability lasting not more than 2 years.

b)
6 months to 2 years.

#77.
All of the following long-term care coverages would allow an insured to receive care at home EXCEPT
a)
Respite care.
b)
Home health care.
c)
Skilled care.
d)
Custodial care in insured's house.

Custodial care, respite care, home health care, and adult day care are all coverages used to reduce the necessity of admission into a care facility. Skilled care is almost always provided in an institutional setting.

c)
Skilled care.

#76.
If an insured withdraws a portion of the face amount in the form of accelerated benefits because of a terminal illness, how will that affect the payable death benefit from the policy?
a)
The death benefit will be larger.
b)
The death benefit will be smaller.
c)
The death benefit will be forfeited.
d)
The death benefit will be the same as the original face amount.

If an insured withdraws a portion of the death benefit by the use of this rider, the benefit payable at death will be reduced by that amount, plus the amount of earnings lost by the insurance company in interest income.

b)

#75.
The type of dental plan which is incorporated into a major medical expense plan is a/an
a)
Stand-alone dental plan.
b)
Blanket dental plan.
c)
Integrated dental plan.
d)
Supplemental dental plan.

When dental coverage is covered under the benefits of a major medical plan, the dental coverage and medical coverage would be an integrated plan. Any deductible amount can be met by either dental or medical expenses.

c)
Integrated dental plan.

#74.
Which of the following statements pertaining to Medicare Part A is correct?
a)
Each individual covered by Medicare Part A is allowed one 90-day benefit period per year.
b)
Medicare Part A is automatically provided when an individual qualifies for Social Security benefits at age 65.
c)
For the first 90 days of hospitalization, Medicare Part A pays 100% of all covered services, except for the initial deductible.
d)
Individuals with ESRD do not qualify for Part A.

Workers who have paid FICA taxes automatically qualify for Medicare Part A at age 65. Part A has been prepaid through the FICA taxes. Workers who qualify for Part A are also eligible for Part B; however, it requires that a monthly premium is withheld from Social Security benefits.

b)
Medicare Part A is automatically provided when an individual qualifies for Social Security benefits at age 65.

#73.
An applicant wants to buy a policy that has a cash value element. Which type should she buy?
a)
Investment
b)
Term
c)
Permanent
d)
Stock

Unlike term insurance, permanent insurance provides lifetime death protection and a savings or cash value option.

c)
Permanent

#72.
In order to be eligible for group health insurance, all of these are conditions an employee must meet EXCEPT
a)
Must have dependents.
b)
Must be working in a covered classification.
c)
Must be actively at work.
d)
Must be a full-time employee.

Employer group health insurance generally requires that to be eligible for coverage an employee must be a full time employee, working in a covered classification, and must be actively at work.

a)
Must have dependents

#71.
Who is responsible for implementing a system that monitors and supervises agent recommendations regarding annuity suitability?
a)
Individual agents
b)
The Insurance Commissioner
c)
The insurer
d)
The Virginia Insurance Guaranty Association

Insurers are responsible for implementing a supervisory system for agent recommendations. The system must have written procedures for agents to follow and methods of periodic review for individual agents. Although insurers are responsible for such a system, they may contract the supervisory role to a third party.

c)
The insurer

#70.
Which of the following losses will be covered by a group medical expense policy?
a)
An injury resulting from active military duty
b)
An intentionally self-inflicted injury
c)
An elective cosmetic surgery
d)
A pre-existing condition

Pre-existing conditions can no longer be excluded from coverage by individual or group medical expense policies. All the other examples are exclusions from coverage.

d)
A pre-existing condition

#69.
All of the following are true regarding the issuance of group life insurance to labor unions EXCEPT
a)
Premiums may be paid through union funds.
b)
Only members of the union are eligible for coverage.
c)
Premiums may be paid through individual member funds.
d)
Members cannot be excluded from coverage on the basis of insurability.

Insurers may exclude or limits coverage on any person if evidence of insurability is not sufficient.

d)
Members cannot be excluded from coverage on the basis of insurability.

#68.
An insured owes his insurer a premium payment. Since then, he incurs medical expenses. The insurer deducts the unpaid premium amount from the claim amount and pays the insured the difference. What provision allows for this?
a)
Legal action
b)
Proof of loss
c)
Payment of claims
d)
Unpaid premium

If a premium is past due and the insurer owes claim payment, the amount of the premium will be deducted from the amount of the claim. For example, if a claim is worth $500 and the premium costs $200, the insured would receive the net total of $300 from his insurer.

d)
Unpaid premium

#67.
Which of the following types of policies allows the policyowner to skip premium payments, provided that there is enough cash value in the policy to cover the premium amount?
a)
Flexible life
b)
Variable life
c)
Adjustable life
d)
Universal life

The policyowner has the flexibility to increase the amount of premium going into the policy and to later decrease it again. In fact, the policyowner may even skip paying a premium and the policy will not lapse as long as there is sufficient cash value at the time to compensate for the nonpayment of premium.

d)
Universal life

#66.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the accumulation period of an annuity?
a)
It is the period during which the annuity payments earn interest.
b)
It is the period over which the owner makes payments into an annuity.
c)
It is also known as the pay-in period.
d)
It would not occur in a deferred annuity.

The "accumulation period" is the period of time over which the annuity owner makes payments (premiums) into an annuity. This is the period of time during which the payments earn interest and grow tax deferred (which would be the case in a deferred annuity).

d)
It would not occur in a deferred annuity.

#65.
What is the shortest possible elimination period for group short-term disability benefits provided by an employer?
a)
0 days
b)
30 days
c)
60 days
d)
90 days

If an employer provides short-term disability benefits for its employees, the elimination period can be nonexistent, and the benefits can last as long as two years. The benefit typically spans 70-80% of the insured's income.

a)
0 days

#64.
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding a $100,000 20-year level term policy?
a)
The policy will expire at the end of the 20-year period.
b)
At the end of 20 years, the policy's cash value will equal $100,000.
c)
The policy premiums will remain level for 20 years.
d)
If the insured dies before the policy expired, the beneficiary will receive $100,000.

Term policies do not develop cash values. All the other statements are true.

b)
At the end of 20 years, the policy's cash value will equal $100,000.

#63.
Under which of the following annuity options does the annuitant select the time period for the benefits, and the insurer determines how much each payment will be?
a)
Installments for a fixed amount
b)
Installment refund
c)
Cash refund
d)
Installments for a fixed period

Under the "installments for a fixed period" option, the annuitant selects the time period for the benefits, and the insurer determines how much each payment will be. This option pays for a specific period of time only, and there are no life contingencies.

d)
Installments for a fixed period

#62.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a guaranteed renewable provision?
a)
The insurer can increase the policy premium on an individual basis.
b)
The insured has a unilateral right to renew the policy for the life of the contract.
c)
Coverage is not renewable beyond the insured's age 65.
d)
The insured's benefits cannot be reduced.

Guaranteed renewable provision has all the same features that the noncancellable provision does, with the exception that the insurer can increase the policy premium on the policy anniversary date. However, the premiums can only be increased on a class basis, not on an individual policy.

a)
The insurer can increase the policy premium on an individual basis.

#60.
Traditional IRA contributions are
a)
Deducted based on the income level.
b)
Never tax deductible.
c)
Partially tax deductible depending on the income level.
d)
Tax deductible.

The following taxation rules apply to contributions made to traditional IRA plans: tax-deductible contributions for the year of the contribution (based on the person's income); contributions must be made in "cash" in order to be tax deductible; excess contributions are taxed at 6% per year as long as the excess amounts remain in the IRA; and tax-deferred earnings are not taxed until withdrawn.

d)
Tax deductible.

#58.
Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, individuals rejected for insurance due to information contained in a consumer report
a)
Must be informed of the source of the report.
b)
Are entitled to obtain a copy of the report from the party who ordered it.
c)
Must be advised that a copy of the report is available to anyone who requests it.
d)
May sue the reporting agency in order to get inaccurate data corrected.

Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, if an insurance policy is declined or modified because of information contained in a consumer report, the consumer must be advised and provided with the name and address of the reporting agency.

a)
Must be informed of the source of the report.

#57.
Which of the following is NOT covered under a long-term care policy?
a)
Adult day care
b)
Hospice care
c)
Home health care
d)
Acute care in a hospital

A long-term care policy may provide coverage for home health care, adult day care, hospice care or respite care. Acute care
is not covered under a long-term care policy

d)
Acute care in a hospital

#56.
At what time may the Insurance Commissioner inspect records pertaining to insurance transactions?
a)
At least 3 years after the transaction
b)
At any business time in the 5 years immediately following the relevant transaction
c)
At least 5 years after the transaction
d)
At any business time in the 3 years immediately following the relevant transaction

Records must be kept available and open to inspection by the Commission, at any business time during the 3 years immediately following the completed transaction.

d)
At any business time in the 3 years immediately following the relevant transaction

#54.
With respect to the Consideration Clause, which of the following would be considered consideration on the part of the applicant for insurance?
a)
Promise to renew the policy at the end of the policy period
b)
Providing warranties on the application
c)
Notice of policy cancellation
d)
Payment of premium

The two types of consideration on the part of an insurance applicant are payment of premiums and representations on the application.

d)
Payment of premium

#52.
Which of the following is true regarding benefits offered by Medicare supplement policies, in relation to Medicare benefits?
a)
There are no restrictions for benefit.
b)
The supplemental benefits cannot duplicate Medicare benefits.
c)
The supplemental benefits must duplicate Medicare benefits.
d)
Some supplemental benefits can duplicate Medicare benefits.

Medicare Supplement Insurance policies may not duplicate benefits provided by Medicare.

b)
The supplemental benefits cannot duplicate Medicare benefits.

#49.
In all health care plans under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), how many essential benefit categories are there?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
12
d)
15

There are 10 essential benefit categories under the ACA.

b)
10

#48.
If an employee terminates her employment, which of the following provisions would allow her to continue health coverage under an individual policy, if requested within 31 days?
a)
Grace period
b)
Renewability
c)
Conversion
d)
Replacement

Conversion provisions are required by law. It allows terminated employees to convert their group health coverage to individual insurance without evidence of insurability, within a specified amount of time, and for eligible reasons.

c)
Conversion

#47.
Margaret applies for an insurance license, but the Commission decides not to issue the license because her tarnished reputation. She notifies the Commission that she wants to dispute this judgment in a hearing. The Commission must give her at least how many days' notice of the date of the hearing?
a)
0
b)
10
c)
30
d)
60

The Commission will notify the applicant at least 10 calendar days' notice in writing, of the time and place of the hearing.

b)
10

#45.
What documentation grants express authority to an agent?
a)
Agent's insurance license
b)
Fiduciary contract
c)
State provisions
d)
Agent's contract with the principal

The principal grants authority to an agent through the agent's contract.

d)
Agent's contract with the principal

#44.
What does "liquidity" refer to in a life insurance policy?
a)
The death benefit replaces the assets that would have accumulated if the insured had not died.
b)
The policyowner receives dividend checks each year.
c)
The insured receives payments each month in retirement.
d)
Cash values can be borrowed at any time.

Liquidity in life insurance refers to availability of cash to the insured through cash values.

d)
Cash values can be borrowed at any time.

#43.
If an annuitant dies before annuitization occurs, what will the beneficiary receive?
a)
Either the amount paid into the plan or the cash value of the plan, whichever is the lesser amount
b)
Amount paid into the plan
c)
Cash value of the plan
d)
Either the amount paid into the plan or the cash value of the plan, whichever is the greater amount

If an annuitant dies before annuitization, the beneficiary will receive either the amount paid into the plan or the cash value of the plan, whichever is greater.

d)
Either the amount paid into the plan or the cash value of the plan, whichever is the greater amount

#42.
On its advertisement, a company claims that it has funds in its possession that are, in fact, not available for the payment of losses or claims. The company is guilty of
a)
Concealment.
b)
Unfair claim practice.
c)
Rebating.
d)
Misrepresentation.

Issuing or circulating any sales material that is false or misleading would be considered misrepresentation and is illegal.

d)
Misrepresentation.

#40.
Employer contributions made to a qualified plan
a)
May discriminate in favor of highly paid employees.
b)
Are after-tax contributions.
c)
Are taxed annually as salary.
d)
Are subject to vesting requirements.

Qualified plans must have a vesting requirement.

d)
Are subject to vesting requirements.

#38.
Which is NOT true about beneficiary designations?
a)
The policy does not have to have a beneficiary named in order to be valid.
b)
Trusts can be valid beneficiaries.
c)
The beneficiary must have insurable interest in the insured.
d)
The beneficiary may be a natural person.

A beneficiary is the person or interest to whom the policy proceeds will be paid upon the death of the insured. Beneficiaries do not have to have an insurable interest in the policyholder.

c)
The beneficiary must have insurable interest in the insured.

#37.
Which of the following would be considered a routine procedure?
a)
Annual check-up
b)
Endodontics
c)
Orthodontics
d)
Prosthodontics

Annual check-ups are covered as routine dental procedures on dental expense insurance.

a)
Annual check-up

#36.
What is the purpose of the regulations on life and annuity marketing practices?
a)
To establish minimum rates for life insurance policies and annuities
b)
To eliminate unfair trade and unfair competition practices
c)
To provide consumers with choices in life insurance products
d)
To establish minimum standards for advertisement, solicitations and replacement of policies

The purpose of regulating life and annuity marketing practices is to establish for insurers and agents minimum standards of conduct and guidelines to assure that advertisements, solicitations, replacements, conservation efforts, and sales of life insurance and annuities are not untrue, deceptive, or misleading.

d)
To establish minimum standards for advertisement, solicitations and replacement of policies

#35.
Which of the following terms is used to describe a person, other than a viator, that enters into or effectuates a viatical settlement contract?
a)
Viatical settlement purchaser
b)
Viatical settlement broker
c)
Viatical settlement effectuator
d)
Viatical settlement provider

"Viatical settlement provider" means a person, other than a viator, that enters into or effectuates (makes effective) a viatical settlement contract.

d)
Viatical settlement provider

#31.
All of the following are advantages of an HMO or PPO for a Medicare recipient EXCEPT
a)
Elective cosmetic procedures are covered.
b)
Prescriptions might be covered, unlike Medicare.
c)
Health care costs can be budgeted.
d)
There are no claims forms required.

The advantages of an HMO or PPO for a Medicare recipient may be that there are no claims forms required, almost any medical problem is covered for a set fee so health care costs can be budgeted, and the HMO or PPO may pay for services not usually covered by Medicare or Medicare supplement policies, such as prescriptions, eye exams, hearing aids, or dental care.

a)
Elective cosmetic procedures are covered.

#29.
Which of the following types of LTC is NOT provided in an institutional setting?
a)
Intermediate care
b)
Home health care
c)
Custodial care
d)
Skilled nursing care

Home health care is given in the home, but skilled nursing, intermediate, and custodial care may all be provided in an institutional setting.

b)
Home health care

#28.
What component must a life insurance policy have to allow policy loans?
a)
Dividends
b)
Flexible premiums
c)
Face amount
d)
Cash value

The policy loan option is found only in policies that contain cash value.

d)
Cash value

#27.
What kind of policy allows withdrawals or partial surrenders?
a)
20-pay life
b)
Term policy
c)
Variable whole life
d)
Universal life

Universal Life products allow the partial withdrawal, or surrender, of the policy cash value.

d)
Universal life

#26.
Term policies are available as Level, Increasing, and Decreasing. Which policy component fluctuates depending on the policy type?
a)
Cash value
b)
Nonforfeiture values
c)
Death benefit
d)
Premium

There are three basic types of term policies: level, increasing and decreasing. Regardless of the type of term insurance purchased, the premium is often level throughout the term of the policy. Only the amount of the death benefit may change.

c)
Death benefit

#25.
Which of the following policy types allows for a flexible premium and a variable investment component?
a)
Guaranteed issue variable life insurance
b)
Variable whole life insurance
c)
Whole life insurance
d)
Variable universal life insurance

A variable universal life insurance policy combines a flexible premium with a cash component that is invested for potentially great returns.

d)
Variable universal life insurance

#24.
An agent is convicted of a felony in another jurisdiction. Within what period of time must the agent report the felony charge to the Commission?
a)
Immediately
b)
5 days
c)
10 days
d)
30 days

Every licensed agent convicted of a felony and/or any administrative action taken against the agent in another jurisdiction or by another governmental agency in this Commonwealth must report all the facts and circumstances to the Commission within 30 days.

d)
30 days

#23.
In order to collect Social Security disability benefits, the claimant must be able to demonstrate that the disability will last at least
a)
24 months.
b)
Until age 65.
c)
For life.
d)
12 months.

Social Security disability benefits are paid to claimants whose disability is expected to last at least 12 months or lead to death.

d)
12 months.

#22.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the alteration of optional policy provisions?
a)
An insurer may change the wording of optional provisions, regardless of its effect on the policyholder.
b)
An insurer may change the wording of optional policy provisions that would adversely affect the policyholder but must first receive state permission before the change goes into effect.
c)
Once any kind of provision is written, it cannot be changed.
d)
An insurer may change the wording of optional provisions, as long as the change does not adversely affect the policyholder.

Optional policy provisions can be changed by an insurer, as long as the changes do not adversely affect the policyholder.

d)
An insurer may change the wording of optional provisions, as long as the change does not adversely affect the policyholder.

#21.
Which of the following programs expands individual public assistance programs for people with insufficient income and resources?
a)
Unemployment compensation
b)
Medicaid
c)
Medicare
d)
Social Security

Medicaid is a "needs" tested program administered by the states to provide assistance to persons who are not able to provide for themselves.

b)
Medicaid

#20.
Who chooses a primary care physician in an HMO?
a)
A referral physician
b)
The individual member
c)
HMO subscribers do not have a primary care physician
d)
The insurer

When an individual becomes a member of the HMO, he or she will choose a primary care physician. Once chosen, the primary care physician will be regularly compensated for being responsible for the care of that member.

b)
The individual member

#19.
An employee is injured in a construction accident, rendering him unable to work for a year. Which of the following plans would provide him with medical expense coverage and income assistance?
a)
Long-term Care
b)
Social Security Disability
c)
Workers Compensation
d)
Major Medical Insurance

Workers Compensation provides employees with medical, income, death, and rehabilitation benefits in the event of work-related injury.

Workers Compensation
d)

#18.
If an insurance company wishes to order a consumer report on an applicant to assist in the underwriting process, and if a notice of insurance information practices has been provided, the report may contain all of the following information EXCEPT the applicant's
a)
Ancestry.
b)
Credit history.
c)
Habits.
d)
Prior insurance.

The Fair Credit Reporting Act regulates what information may be collected and how the information may be used. Consumer Reports include written and/or oral information regarding a consumer's credit, character, reputation, and habits collected by a reporting agency from employment records, credit reports, and other public sources. Ancestry is not a relevant factor assessed in these reports.

a)
Ancestry.

#17.
Annuities can be used to fund which of the following?
a)
Variable life insurance
b)
Group life insurance
c)
Estate creation
d)
Retirement plans

Since annuities are a popular means to provide retirement income, they are often used to fund qualified retirement plans.

d)
Retirement plans

#15.
Which of the following would least likely be considered a legitimate need that would be paid by insurance proceeds?
a)
Travel expenses for family to come to the funeral
b)
Debt cancellation
c)
Day care
d)
Vacation travel expenses

There are many legitimate need-based expenses that can be paid by life insurance proceeds, from groceries to retirement income. Vacation travel expenses are most likely to be considered a luxury and not a need.

d)
Vacation travel expenses

#13.
If an insurer's health insurance advertising materials have been examined by the Commission 3 years ago, does the insurer have to maintain records any longer?
a)
Yes, the insurer must maintain records for 1 more year.
b)
Yes, the insurer must maintain records for 4 years, in all cases.
c)
No, the records must only be kept for 2 years.
d)
No, once examined, the records can be discarded.

All general health policy advertisements must be maintained by the insurer on file for either 4 years or until the next scheduled report on examination, whichever is longer. Note that long-term care policies have different record-keeping requirements.

a)
Yes, the insurer must maintain records for 1 more year.

#11.
Which of the following applies to the 10-day free-look privilege?
a)
It is granted only at the option of the agent.
b)
It permits the insured to return the policy for a full refund of premiums paid.
c)
It allows the insured 10 days to pay the initial premium.
d)
It can be waived only by the insurance company.

A policyowner may return a policy for any reason during the free-look period and receive a full refund.

b)
It permits the insured to return the policy for a full refund of premiums paid.

#10.
A Medicare supplement policy cannot exclude or limit benefits for loss incurred more than how many months before the effective date of the policy?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
24
d)
3

A Medicare supplement policy cannot exclude or limit benefits for loss incurred more than 6 months before the effective date of the policy. A Medicare supplement policy can not duplicate benefits provided by Medicare.

a)
6

#9.
An insurance company forwards fixed annuity premiums to their general account, where the money is invested. The guaranteed minimum interest is set at 2.5%. During an economic downswing, the investments only drew 2%. What interest rate will the insurer pay to its policyholders?
a)
2%
b)
2.5%
c)
3%
d)
Whatever interest rate the company deems appropriate

Insurance companies promise guaranteed minimums on the fixed annuities (2.5% in this scenario). This means that if the investments draw less than that, the company will have to pay 2.5% anyway. If the investments earn over 2.5%, the company will pay that excess.

b)
2.5%

#8.
The Ownership provision entitles the policyowner to do all of the following EXCEPT
a)
Set premium rates.
b)
Receive a policy loan.
c)
Assign the policy.
d)
Designate a beneficiary.

The insurer sets premium rates based upon underwriting considerations.

a)
Set premium rates.

#6.
What process will the insurance company use to monitor the insured's hospital stay to make sure that everything is proceeding according to schedule?
a)
Prospective review
b)
Corridor deductible
c)
Preventive review
d)
Concurrent review

Under the concurrent review process, the insurance company will monitor the insured's hospital stay to make sure that everything is proceeding according to schedule and that the insured will be released from the hospital as planned.

d)
Concurrent review

#4.
When twin brothers applied for life insurance from Company A, the company found that while neither of them smoked and both had a very similar lifestyle, one of the twins was in a much stronger financial position than the other. Because of this, the company charged him a higher rate for his insurance. This practice is considered
a)
Discrimination.
b)
Twisting.
c)
Controlled business.
d)
Adverse selection.

Permitting individuals of the same class to be charged a different rate for the same insurance is the unfair trade practice of discrimination.

a)
Discrimination.

#3.
Which type of care is NOT covered by Medicare?
a)
Hospital
b)
Long-term care
c)
Hospice
d)
Respite

Hospice care, which includes respite care, and hospital care are included in Medicare Part A.

b)
Long-term care

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31 terms

jocelynbe

Week 5

23 terms

mariahh222

Which of the following information about the application is not included in the General Information section of the application for insurance?

All of the following information about the applicant is identified in the General Information section of a life insurance application except? -Gender.

Which of the following is not included in a life insurance illustration quizlet?

Which of the following is NOT included in a life insurance illustration? Company's mortality table. A life insurance illustration is NOT required to include the company's mortality table.

What must an insurer have to be admitted quizlet?

What must an insurer have to be admitted? Admitted, or authorized, insurers must have a certificate of authority to transact insurance in a particular state.

Which of the following is not required information in a life insurance illustration?

Which of the following is NOT required on an illustration used in the sale of a life insurance policy? Underwriting or rating classification upon which the illustration is based.